http://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2014/06/23/us/23awlaki-memo.html
On page 76 of 97 is the following statement:
... we conclude that the justification would be available because the operation would constitute the "lawful conduct of war" - a well-established variant of the public authority justification.
I do not believe that the Founders intended to give the federal government the authority to wage war on its own citizens or the several states. These are powers which tyrants such as Abraham Lincoln and Obama ad-Dajjal seized for themselves.
I also do not believe that Anwar al-Awlaki waged war on the United States. Even if he did, there is an important historical precedent which is being ignored. Abolitionist John Brown actually waged war on the United States, and in response he was captured and given a trial. Why couldn't the same have been done for al-Awlaki and Osama bin Laden? Is it because the government knows damn well that neither man was guilty of the alleged crimes for which they were executed?
There is no status of limitations on the crime of murder. Someday when we come to our senses, Obama ad-Dajjal and his minions can be brought before an actual court to answer for what they have done:
Vast and ominous changes have taken place in America. The entire official political set-up is in an advanced stage of putrefaction. History teaches that, “in the course of human events,” there comes a point when a critical mass of people concludes that the existing system has become so intolerable that it must be radically changed. Such a point is fast approaching in the United States.
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